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P74 N6 T4AA-1.1 RA QWhat are the frequency privileges authorized to the QAdvanced operator in the 75-meter wavelength band? A3525 kHz to 3750 kHz and 3775 kHz to 4000 kHz B3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz C3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 3890 kHz D3525 kHz to 3775 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz T4AA-1.2 RB QWhat are the frequency privileges authorized to the QAdvanced operator in the 40-meter wavelength band? A7000 kHz to 7300 kHz B7025 kHz to 7300 kHz C7025 kHz to 7350 kHz D7000 kHz to 7025 kHz T4AA-1.3 RD QWhat are the frequency privileges authorized to the QAdvanced operator in the 20-meter wavelength band? A14000 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz B14025 kHz to 14175 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz C14000 kHz to 14025 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz D14025 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz T4AA-1.4 RC QWhat are the frequency privileges authorized to the QAdvanced operator in the 15-meter wavelength band? A21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21250 kHz to 21450 kHz B21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21300 kHz to 21450 kHz C21025 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21225 kHz to 21450 kHz D21025 kHz to 21250 kHz and 21270 kHz to 21450 kHz T4AA-2.1 RA QWhat is meant by automatic retransmission from a repeater Qstation? AThe repeater is actuated by a received electrical signal BThe repeater is actuated by a telephone control link CThe repeater station is actuated by a control operator DThe repeater station is actuated by a call sign sent in DMorse code T4AA-2.2 RD QWhat is the term for the operation of a repeater whereby Qthe repeater station is actuated solely by the presence of a Qreceived signal through electrical or electromechanical means, Qwithout any direct, positive action by the control operator? ASimplex retransmission BManual retransmission CLinear retransmission DAutomatic retransmission T4AA-2.3 RB QUnder what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station Qautomatically retransmit programs or the radio signals of other Qamateur stations? AOnly when the station licensee is present BOnly if the station is a repeater or space station COnly when the control operator is present DOnly during portable operation T4AA-2.4 RA QWhich of the following stations may not be automatically Qcontrolled? AA station transmitting control signals to a model craft BA station in beacon operation CA station in auxiliary operation DA station in repeater operation T4AA-3.1 RD QWhat is meant by repeater operation? AAn amateur radio station employing a phone patch to pass Athird-party communications BAn apparatus for effecting remote control between a control Bpoint and a remotely controlled station CManual or simplex operation DRadio communications in which amateur radio station signals Dare automatically retransmitted T4AA-3.2 RA QWhat is a closed repeater? AA repeater containing control circuitry that limits Arepeater access to certain users BA repeater containing no special control circuitry to limit Baccess to any licensed amateur CA repeater containing a transmitter and receiver on the Csame frequency, a closed pair DA repeater shut down by order of an FCC District Engineer- Din-Charge T4AA-3.3 RC QWhat frequencies in the 10-meter wavelength band are Qavailable for repeater operation? A28.0-28.7 MHz B29.0-29.7 MHz C29.5-29.7 MHz D28.5-29.7 MHz T4AA-3.4 RD QWhich of the following repeater operating and technical Qparameters are ++++not++++ the responsibility of the area frequency Qcoordinator? AThe repeater effective radiated power BThe repeater transmit and receive frequencies CThe repeater Height Above Average Terrain (HAAT) DThe repeater call sign T4AA-3.5 RC QWhat frequencies in the 23-cm wavelength band are Qavailable for repeater operation? A1270-1300 MHz B1270-1295 MHz C1240-1300 MHz DRepeater operation is not permitted in the 23-cm wavelength Dband T4AA-3.6 RA QWhat is an open repeater? AA repeater that does not contain control circuitry that Alimits repeater access to certain users BA repeater available for use only by members of a club or Brepeater group CA repeater that continuously transmits a signal to indicate Cthat it is available for use DA repeater whose frequency pair has been properly Dcoordinated T4AA-3.7 RD QWhat frequencies in the 6-meter wavelength band are Qavailable for repeater operation? A51.00-52.00 MHz B50.25-52.00 MHz C52.00-53.00 MHz D51.00-54.00 MHz T4AA-3.8 RA QWhat frequencies in the 2-meter wavelength band are Qavailable for repeater operation? A144.50-145.50 and 146-148.00 MHz B144.50-148.00 MHz C144.75-146.00 and 146-148.00 MHz D146.00-148.00 MHz T4AA-3.10 RA QWhat frequencies in the 0.70-meter wavelength band are Qavailable for repeater operation? A420.0-431, 433-435 and 438-450 MHz B420.5-440 and 445-450 MHz C420.5-435 and 438-450 MHz D420.5-433, 435-438 and 439-450 MHz T4AA-4.1 RD QWhat is meant by auxiliary station operation? ARadio communication from a location more than 50 miles from Athat indicated on the station license for a period of more than Athree months BRemote control of model airplanes or boats using Bfrequencies above 50.1 MHz CRemote control of model airplanes or boats using Cfrequencies above 29.5 MHz DTransmission of communications point-to-point within a Dsystem of cooperating amateur stations T4AA-4.2 RA QWhat is one use for a station in auxiliary operation? APoint-to-point radio communications within a system of Acooperating amateur stations BRemote control of model craft CPassing of international third-party communications DThe retransmission of NOAA weather broadcasts T4AA-4.3 RB QA station in auxiliary operation may only communicate Qwith which stations? AStations in the public safety service BOther amateur stations within a system of cooperating Bamateur stations CAmateur radio stations in space satellite operation DAmateur radio stations other than those under manual Dcontrol T4AA-5.1 RD QWhat is meant by ++++remote control++++ of an amateur radio Qstation? AAmateur communications conducted from a specific Ageographical location other than that shown on the station Alicense BAutomatic operation of a station from a control point Blocated elsewhere than at the station transmitter CAn amateur radio station operating under automatic control DA control operator indirectly manipulating the operating Dadjustments in the station through a control link T4AA-5.2 RA QWhat is one responsibility of a control operator of a Qstation under remote control? AProvisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more Athan 3 minutes if the control link malfunctions BProvisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more Bthan 4 minutes if the control link malfunctions CProvisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more Cthan 5 minutes if the control link malfunctions DProvisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more Dthan 10 minutes if the control link malfunctions T4AA-5.3 RC QIf the control link for a station under remote control Qmalfunctions, there must be a provision to limit transmission to Qwhat time length? A5 seconds B10 minutes C3 minutes D5 minutes T4AA-6.1 RA QWhat is meant by ++++automatic control++++ of an amateur radio Qstation? AThe use of devices and procedures for control so that a Acontrol operator does not have to be present at a control point BRadio communication for remotely controlling another Bamateur radio station CRemotely controlling a station such that a control operator Cdoes not have to be present at the control point at all times DThe use of a control link between a control point and a Dremotely controlled station T4AA-6.2 RB QHow do the responsibilities of the control operator of a Qstation under automatic control differ from one under local Qcontrol? AUnder local control, there is no control operator BUnder automatic control, a control operator is not required Bto be present at a control point CUnder automatic control, there is no control operator DUnder local control, a control operator is not required to Dbe present at the control point at all times T4AA-6.3 RB QWhich of the following amateur stations may be operated Qby automatic control? AStations without a control operator BStations in repeater operation CStations under remote control DStations controlling model craft T4AA-7.1 RC QWhat is a control link? AThe automatic-control devices at an unattended station BAn automatically operated link CThe remote control apparatus between a control point and a Cremotely controlled station DA transmission-limiting timing device T4AA-7.2 RD QWhat is the term for apparatus to effect remote control Qbetween the control point and a remotely controlled station? ATone link BWire control CRemote control DControl link T4AA-8.1 RA QWhat is meant by local control? AThe use of a control operator who directly manipulates the Aoperating adjustments BThe OSCAR satellite transponder CA carrier operated relay system DThe use of a portable handheld to turn on or off the Drepeater T4AA-8.2 RB QWho may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? AAny amateur operator BAny Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class Boperator CAny General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator DAny Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator T4AA-9.1 RC QHow may a repeater station be identified? ABy a burst of digitized information BOnly voice may be used for identification CBy CW or voice DOnly CW may be used for identification T4AA-9.2 RC QWhen a repeater station is identified in Morse code using Qan automatic keying device, what is the maximum code speed Qpermitted? A13 words per minute B30 words per minute C20 words per minute DThere is no limitation T4AA-9.3 RD QHow often must a beacon station be identified? AEvery eight minutes BOnly at the end of the series of transmissions CAt the beginning of a series of transmissions DAt least once every ten minutes during and at the end of Dactivity T4AA-9.4 RA QWhen may a repeater be identified using digital codes? AAny time that particular code is used for at least part of Athe communication BDigital identification is not allowed COnly voice may be allowed DNo identification is needed in digital transmissions T4AA-10.1 RB QWhen is prior FCC approval required before constructing Qor altering an amateur station antenna structure? AWhen the antenna structure violates local building codes BWhen the height above ground will exceed 200 feet CWhen an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway Cwill be 150 feet high DWhen an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway Dwill be 100 feet high T4AA-10.2 RC QWhat must an amateur radio operator obtain from the FCC Qbefore constructing or altering an antenna structure more than Q200 feet high? AAn Environmental Impact Statement BA Special Temporary Authorization CPrior approval DAn effective radiated power statement T4AA-11.1 RB QWithout special FCC approval, what maximum height above Qground level (excluding airport proximity effects) is permitted Qfor any amateur antenna support structure, including the Qradiating elements, tower, supports, etc.? A46 m (150 feet) B61 m (200 feet) C76 m (250 feet) D91 m (300 feet) T4AA-11.2 RA QFrom what government agencies must permission be Qobtained if you wish to erect an amateur antenna structure that Qexceeds 200 feet above ground level? AFederal Aviation Administration and Federal Communications ACommission BEnvironmental Protection Agency and Federal Communications BCommission CFederal Aviation Administration and Environmental CProtection Agency DEnvironmental Protection Agency and National Aeronautics Dand Space Administration T4AA-12.1 RB QWhich of the following types of amateur communications Qis ++++not++++ a "prohibited transmission" as defined in Part 97? ATransmission of messages into a disaster area for hire or Afor material compensation BTransmissions ensuring safety on a highway, such as calling Ba commercial tow truck service CTransmission of communications that facilitate the regular Cbusiness or commercial affairs of any party DTransmission of communications concerning moving, supplying Dand quartering participants in a charity event as long as the Dsponsoring charity is the principal beneficiary of such Dcommunications, not the public T4AA-12.2 RC QMay an amateur operator inform other amateur operators Qof the availability of apparatus for sale or trade over the Qairwaves? AYou are not allowed to sell or trade equipment on the air BYou are allowed to derive a profit by buying or selling Bequipment on the air on a regular basis CThis is a permissible activity if the apparatus can Cnormally be used at an amateur station and is not done for profit Cby the offering individual on a regular basis DThis is allowed only if you also give the serial number of Dthe equipment T4AA-13.1 RD QWhat are the only types of messages that may be Qtransmitted to an amateur station in a foreign country? ASupplies needed, on a routine schedule BEmergency messages or business messages CBusiness messages or messages of a technical nature DPersonal remarks, tests, or messages of a technical nature T4AA-13.2 RB QWhat are the limitations on international amateur radio Qcommunications regarding the types of messages transmitted? AEmergency communications only BTechnical or personal messages only CBusiness communications only DCall sign and signal reports only T4AA-14.1 RC QUnder what circumstances, if any, may amateur operators Qaccept payment for using their own stations (other than a club Qstation) to send messages? AWhen employed by the FCC BWhen passing emergency traffic CUnder no circumstances DWhen passing international third-party communications T4AA-14.2 RD QUnder what circumstances, if any, may the licensee of an Qamateur station in repeater operation accept remuneration for Qproviding communication services to another party? AWhen the repeater is operating under portable power BWhen the repeater is under local control CDuring Red Cross or other emergency service drills DUnder no circumstances T4AA-15.1 RA QWho is responsible for preparing an Element 1(A) Qtelegraphy examination? AThe volunteer examiners or a qualified supplier BThe FCC CThe VEC DAny Novice licensee T4AA-15.2 RB QWhat must the Element 1(A) telegraphy examination prove? AThe applicant's ability to send and receive text in Ainternational Morse code at a rate of not less than 13 words per Aminute BThe applicant's ability to send and receive text in Binternational Morse code at a rate of not less than 5 words per Bminute CThe applicant's ability to send and receive text in Cinternational Morse code at a rate of not less than 20 words per Cminute DThe applicant's ability to send text in international Morse Dcode at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute T4AA-15.3 RA QWhich telegraphy characters are used in an Element 1(A) Qtelegraphy examination? AThe letters A through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, the Acomma, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN BThe letters A through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, the Bcomma, the open and closed parenthesis, the question mark, AR, BSK, BT and DN CThe letters A through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, the Ccomma, the dollar sign, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN DA through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, the comma, and the Dquestion mark T4AA-16.1 RC QWho is responsible for preparing an Element 2 written Qexamination? AThe FCC BAny Novice licensee CThe volunteer examiners or a qualified supplier DThe VEC T4AA-16.2 RD QWhere do volunteer examiners obtain the questions for Qpreparing an Element 2 written examination? AThey must prepare the examination from material contained Ain the ++++ARRL Handbook++++ or obtain a question set from the FCC BThey must prepare the examination from material contained Bin a question pool maintained by the FCC in Washington CThey must prepare the examination from material contained Cin a question pool maintained by the local FCC field office DThey must prepare the examination from a common question Dpool maintained by the VECs or obtain a question set from a Dsupplier T4AA-17.1 RA QWho is eligible for administering an examination for the QNovice operator license? AAn amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or AExtra class license and at least 18 years old BAn amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, BAdvanced or Extra class license and at least 18 years old CAn amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or CExtra class license and at least 16 years old DAn amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, DAdvanced or Extra class license and at least 16 years old T4AA-18.1 RB QWhat is the minimum passing score on a written Qexamination element for the Novice operator license? AA minimum of 19 correct answers BA minimum of 22 correct answers CA minimum of 21 correct answers DA minimum of 24 correct answers T4AA-18.2 RD QHow many questions must an Element 2 written examination Qcontain? A25 B50 C40 D30 T4AA-18.3 RB QIn a telegraphy examination, how many characters are Qcounted as one word? A2 B5 C8 D10 T4AA-19.1 RC QWhat is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner? A16 years old B21 years old C18 years old D13 years old T4AA-19.2 RA QUnder what circumstances, if any, may volunteer Qexaminers be compensated for their services? AUnder no circumstances BWhen out-of-pocket expenses exceed 25 CThe volunteer examiner may be compensated when traveling Cover 25 miles to the test site DOnly when there are more than 20 applicants attending the Dexamination session T4AA-19.3 RA QUnder what circumstances, if any, may a person whose Qamateur station license or amateur operator license has ever been Qrevoked or suspended be a volunteer examiner? AUnder no circumstances BOnly if five or more years have elapsed since the Brevocation or suspension COnly if 3 or more years have elapsed since the revocation Cor suspension DOnly after review and subsequent approval by the VEC T4AA-19.4 RB QUnder what circumstances, if any, may an employee of a Qcompany which is engaged in the distribution of equipment used in Qconnection with amateur radio transmissions be a volunteer Qexaminer? AIf the employee is employed in the amateur radio sales part Aof the company BIf the employee does not normally communicate with the Bmanufacturing or distribution part of the company CIf the employee serves as a volunteer examiner for his/her Ccustomers DIf the employee does not normally communicate with the Dbenefits and policies part of the company T4AA-20.1 RC QWhat are the penalties for fraudulently administering Qexaminations? AThe VE's amateur station license may be suspended for a Aperiod not to exceed 3 months BThe VE is subject to a monetary fine not to exceed 500 for Beach day the offense was committed CThe VE's amateur station license may be revoked and the Coperator's license suspended DThe VE may be restricted to administering only Novice class Dlicense examinations T4AA-20.2 RD QWhat are the penalties for administering examinations Qfor money or other considerations? AThe VE's amateur station license may be suspended for a Aperiod not to exceed 3 months BThe VE is subject to a monetary fine not to exceed 500 for Beach day the offense was committed CThe VE will be restricted to administering only Novice Cclass license examinations DThe VE's amateur station license may be revoked and the Doperator's license suspended N1 T4AB-1.1 RD QWhat is ++++facsimile++++? AThe transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a Apicture when printed BThe transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television CThe transmission of video by amateur television DThe transmission of printed pictures for permanent display Don paper T4AB-1.2 RA QWhat is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile Qpicture transmitted by an amateur station? AThe modern standard is 240 lines per minute BThe modern standard is 50 lines per minute CThe modern standard is 150 lines per second DThe modern standard is 60 lines per second T4AB-1.3 RB QWhat is the approximate transmission time for a facsimile Qpicture transmitted by an amateur station? AApproximately 6 minutes per frame at 240 lpm BApproximately 3.3 minutes per frame at 240 lpm CApproximately 6 seconds per frame at 240 lpm D1/60 second per frame at 240 lpm T4AB-1.4 RB QWhat is the term for the transmission of printed pictures Qby radio? ATelevision BFacsimile CXerography DACSSB T4AB-1.5 RC QIn facsimile, how are variations in picture brightness Qand darkness converted into voltage variations? AWith an LED BWith a Hall-effect transistor CWith a photodetector DWith an optoisolator T4AB-2.1 RD QWhat is ++++slow-scan++++ television? AThe transmission of Baudot or ASCII signals by radio BThe transmission of pictures for permanent display on paper CThe transmission of moving pictures by radio DThe transmission of still pictures by radio T4AB-2.2 RB QWhat is the scan rate commonly used for amateur slow-scan Qtelevision? A20 lines per minute B15 lines per second C4 lines per minute D240 lines per minute T4AB-2.3 RC QHow many lines are there in each frame of an amateur Qslow-scan television picture? A30 B60 C120 D180 T4AB-2.4 RC QWhat is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow- Qscan television picture? A2300 Hz B2000 Hz C1500 Hz D120 Hz T4AB-2.5 RD QWhat is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow- Qscan television picture? A120 Hz B1500 Hz C2000 Hz D2300 Hz N2 T4AC-1.1 RC QWhat is a ++++sporadic-E++++ condition? AVariations in E-layer height caused by sunspot variations BA brief increase in VHF signal levels from meteor trails at BE-layer height CPatches of dense ionization at E-layer height DPartial tropospheric ducting at E-layer height T4AC-1.2 RD QWhat is the propagation condition called where scattered Qpatches of relatively dense ionization develop seasonally at E Qlayer heights? AAuroral propagation BDucting CScatter DSporadic-E T4AC-1.3 RA QIn what region of the world is ++++sporadic-E++++ most prevalent? AThe equatorial regions BThe arctic regions CThe northern hemisphere DThe polar regions T4AC-1.4 RB QOn which amateur frequency band is the extended-distance Qpropagation effect of sporadic-E most often observed? A2 meters B6 meters C20 meters D160 meters T4AC-1.5 RA QWhat appears to be the major cause of the ++++sporadic-E++++ Qcondition? AWind shear BSunspots CTemperature inversions DMeteors T4AC-2.1 RB QWhat is a ++++selective fading++++ effect? AA fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at Athe receiving station BA fading effect caused by phase differences between radio Bwave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the Breceiving station CA fading effect caused by large changes in the height of Cthe ionosphere, as experienced at the receiving station DA fading effect caused by time differences between the Dreceiving and transmitting stations T4AC-2.2 RC QWhat is the propagation effect called when phase Qdifferences between radio wave components of the same Qtransmission are experienced at the recovery station? AFaraday rotation BDiversity reception CSelective fading DPhase shift T4AC-2.3 RD QWhat is the major cause of ++++selective fading++++? ASmall changes in beam heading at the receiving station BLarge changes in the height of the ionosphere, as Bexperienced at the receiving station CTime differences between the receiving and transmitting Cstations DPhase differences between radio wave components of the same Dtransmission, as experienced at the receiving station T4AC-2.4 RB QWhich emission modes suffer the most from ++++selective Qfading++++? ACW and SSB BFM and double sideband AM CSSB and AMTOR DSSTV and CW T4AC-2.5 RA QHow does the bandwidth of the transmitted signal affect Q++++selective fading++++? AIt is more pronounced at wide bandwidths BIt is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths CIt is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths DThe receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading Deffect T4AC-3.1 RD QWhat effect does ++++auroral activity++++ have upon radio Qcommunications? AThe readability of SSB signals increases BFM communications are clearer CCW signals have a clearer tone DCW signals have a fluttery tone T4AC-3.2 RC QWhat is the cause of ++++auroral activity++++? AA high sunspot level BA low sunspot level CThe emission of charged particles from the sun DMeteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes T4AC-3.3 RB QIn the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a Qdirectional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of Qauroral propagation? ASouth BNorth CEast DWest T4AC-3.4 RD QWhere in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur? AAt F-layer height BIn the equatorial band CAt D-layer height DAt E-layer height T4AC-3.5 RA QWhich emission modes are best for auroral propagation? ACW and SSB BSSB and FM CFM and CW DRTTY and AM T4AC-4.1 RD QWhy does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the Qgeometric horizon? AE-layer skip BD-layer skip CAuroral skip DRadio waves may be bent T4AC-4.2 RA QHow much farther does the radio-path horizon distance Qexceed the geometric horizon? ABy approximately 15% of the distance BBy approximately twice the distance CBy approximately one-half the distance DBy approximately four times the distance T4AC-4.3 RB QTo what distance is VHF propagation ordinarily limited? AApproximately 1000 miles BApproximately 500 miles CApproximately 1500 miles DApproximately 2000 miles T4AC-4.4 RC QWhat propagation condition is usually indicated when a QVHF signal is received from a station over 500 miles away? AD-layer absorption BFaraday rotation CTropospheric ducting DMoonbounce T4AC-4.5 RA QWhat happens to a radio wave as it travels in space and Qcollides with other particles? AKinetic energy is given up by the radio wave BKinetic energy is gained by the radio wave CAurora is created DNothing happens since radio waves have no physical Dsubstance N4 T4AD-1.1 RB QWhat is a ++++frequency standard++++? AA net frequency BA device used to produce a highly accurate reference Bfrequency CA device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz DA device used to generate wideband random frequencies T4AD-1.2 RA QWhat is a ++++frequency-marker generator++++? AA device used to produce a highly accurate reference Afrequency BA sweep generator CA broadband white noise generator DA device used to generate wideband random frequencies T4AD-1.3 RB QHow is a frequency-marker generator used? AIn conjunction with a grid-dip meter BTo provide reference points on a receiver dial CAs the basic frequency element of a transmitter DTo directly measure wavelength T4AD-1.4 RA QWhat is a ++++frequency counter++++? AA frequency measuring device BA frequency marker generator CA device that determines whether or not a given frequency Cis in use before automatic transmissions are made DA broadband white noise generator T4AD-1.5 RD QHow is a frequency counter used? ATo provide reference points on an analog receiver dial BTo generate a frequency standard CTo measure the deviation in an FM transmitter DTo measure frequency T4AD-1.6 RC QWhat is the most the actual transmitter frequency could Qdiffer from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter Qwith a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm? A165.2 Hz B14.652 kHz C146.52 Hz D1.4652 MHz T4AD-1.7 RA QWhat is the most the actual transmitter frequency could Qdiffer from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter Qwith a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm? A14.652 Hz B0.1 MHz C1.4652 Hz D1.4652 kHz T4AD-1.8 RD QWhat is the most the actual transmitter frequency could Qdiffer from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter Qwith a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm? A146.52 Hz B10 Hz C146.52 kHz D1465.20 Hz T4AD-1.9 RD QWhat is the most the actual transmitter frequency could Qdiffer from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter Qwith a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm? A43.21 MHz B10 Hz C1.0 MHz D432.1 Hz T4AD-1.10 RA QWhat is the most the actual transmit frequency could Qdiffer from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter Qwith a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm? A43.21 Hz B0.1 MHz C432.1 Hz D0.2 MHz T4AD-1.11 RC QWhat is the most the actual transmit frequency could Qdiffer from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter Qwith a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm? A10 MHz B10 Hz C4321 Hz D432.1 Hz T4AD-2.1 RC QWhat is a ++++dip-meter++++? AA field strength meter BAn SWR meter CA variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current DA marker generator T4AD-2.2 RD QWhy is a dip-meter used by many amateur operators? AIt can measure signal strength accurately BIt can measure frequency accurately CIt can measure transmitter output power accurately DIt can give an indication of the resonant frequency of a Dcircuit T4AD-2.3 RB QHow does a dip-meter function? AReflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize the Adetector coil BPower coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in Bmetered current CPower from a transmitter cancels feedback current DHarmonics of the oscillator cause an increase in resonant Dcircuit Q T4AD-2.4 RD QWhat two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur Qstation? ATo measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to Ameasure percentage of modulation BTo measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of Bmodulation CTo measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna Cimpedance DTo measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to Dmeasure a tuned circuit resonant frequency T4AD-2.5 RB QWhat types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a Qtuned circuit being checked? AResistive and inductive BInductive and capacitive CResistive and capacitive DStrong field T4AD-2.6 RA QHow tight should the dip-meter be coupled with the tuned Qcircuit being checked? AAs loosely as possible, for best accuracy BAs tightly as possible, for best accuracy CFirst loose, then tight, for best accuracy DWith a soldered jumper wire between the meter and the Dcircuit to be checked, for best accuracy T4AD-2.7 RB QWhat happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly Qcoupled with the tuned circuit being checked? AHarmonics are generated BA less accurate reading results CCross modulation occurs DIntermodulation distortion occurs T4AD-3.1 RA QWhat factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and Qstability of an oscilloscope? ASweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth BTube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier Bvoltage CSweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments DDeflection amplifier output impedance and tube face Dfrequency increments T4AD-3.2 RD QWhat factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and Qstability of a D'Arsonval movement type meter? ACalibration, coil impedance and meter size BCalibration, series resistance and electromagnet current CCoil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement mass DCalibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance T4AD-3.3 RB QWhat factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and Qstability of a frequency counter? ANumber of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and Atime base stability BTime base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base Bstability CTime base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic Cand time base stability DNumber of digits in the readout, external frequency Dreference and temperature coefficient of the logic T4AD-3.4 RD QHow can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be Qimproved? ABy using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the Atime base BBy using a crystal oscillator as the time base and Bincreasing the vertical sweep rate CBy increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal Camplifier frequency response DBy increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical Damplifier frequency response T4AD-3.5 RC QHow can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved? ABy using slower digital logic BBy improving the accuracy of the frequency response CBy increasing the accuracy of the time base DBy using faster digital logic T4AD-4.1 RD QWhat is the condition called which occurs when the Qsignals of two transmitters in close proximity mix together in Qone or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum Qand difference frequencies of the original transmissions are generated? AAmplifier desensitization BNeutralization CAdjacent channel interference DIntermodulation interference T4AD-4.2 RB QHow does ++++intermodulation interference++++ between two Qtransmitters usually occur? AWhen the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of Aphase from airplanes passing overhead BWhen they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one Bor both of their final amplifiers CWhen they are in close proximity and the signals cause Cfeedback in one or both of their final amplifiers DWhen the signals from the transmitters are reflected in Dphase from airplanes passing overhead T4AD-4.3 RB QHow can intermodulation interference between two Qtransmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? ABy using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power BBy installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator Bin the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer CBy installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line DBy installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed D line T4AD-4.4 RD QWhat can occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a Qsingle-sideband phone transmitter? AReduced amplifier efficiency BIncreased intelligibility CSideband inversion DDistortion T4AD-4.5 RB QHow can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in Qtransmitter amplifier design? ABy using a push-push amplifier BBy using a push-pull amplifier CBy operating class C DBy operating class AB T4AD-5.1 RC QWhat is ++++receiver desensitizing++++? AA burst of noise when the squelch is set too low BA burst of noise when the squelch is set too high CA reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong Csignal on a nearby frequency DA reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain Dcontrol is turned down T4AD-5.2 RA QWhat is the term used to refer to the reduction of Qreceiver gain caused by the signals of a nearby station Qtransmitting in the same frequency band? ADesensitizing BQuieting CCross modulation interference DSquelch gain rollback T4AD-5.3 RC QWhat is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver Qsensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel Qsignals? AIntermodulation distortion BQuieting CDesensitizing DOverloading T4AD-5.4 RC QWhat causes ++++receiver desensitizing++++? AAudio gain adjusted too low BSquelch gain adjusted too high CThe presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency DSquelch gain adjusted too low T4AD-5.5 RA QHow can ++++receiver desensitizing++++ be reduced? AEnsure good RF shielding between the transmitter and Areceiver BIncrease the transmitter audio gain CDecrease the receiver squelch gain DIncrease the receiver bandwidth T4AD-6.1 RD QWhat is ++++cross-modulation interference++++? AInterference between two transmitters of different Amodulation type BInterference caused by audio rectification in the receiver Bpreamp CHarmonic distortion of the transmitted signal DModulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to Dthe desired signal T4AD-6.2 RB QWhat is the term used to refer to the condition where the Qsignals from a very strong station are superimposed on other Qsignals being received? AIntermodulation distortion BCross-modulation interference CReceiver quieting DCapture effect T4AD-6.3 RA QHow can ++++cross-modulation++++ in a receiver be reduced? ABy installing a filter at the receiver BBy using a better antenna CBy increasing the receiver's RF gain while decreasing the CAF gain DBy adjusting the pass-band tuning T4AD-6.4 RC QWhat is the result of ++++cross-modulation++++? AA decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals BReceiver quieting CThe modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the Cdesired signal DInverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier T4AD-7.1 RC QWhat is the ++++capture effect++++? AAll signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM Areceiver BAll signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM Breceiver CThe loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal DThe weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal T4AD-7.2 RC QWhat is the term used to refer to the reception blockage Qof one FM-phone signal by another FM-phone signal? ADesensitization BCross-modulation interference CCapture effect DFrequency discrimination T4AD-7.3 RA QWith which emission type is the capture-effect most Qpronounced? AFM BSSB CAM DCW N10 T4AE-1.1 RA QWhat is ++++reactive power++++? AWattless, non-productive power BPower consumed in wire resistance in an inductor CPower lost because of capacitor leakage DPower consumed in circuit Q T4AE-1.2 RD QWhat is the term for an out-of-phase, non-productive Qpower associated with inductors and capacitors? AEffective power BTrue power CPeak envelope power DReactive power T4AE-1.3 RA QWhat is the term for energy that is stored in an Qelectromagnetic or electrostatic field? APotential energy BAmperes-joules CJoules-coulombs DKinetic energy T4AE-1.4 RB QWhat is responsible for the phenomenon when voltages Qacross reactances in series can often be larger than the voltages Qapplied to them? ACapacitance BResonance CConductance DResistance T4AE-2.1 RC QWhat is ++++resonance++++ in an electrical circuit? AThe highest frequency that will pass current BThe lowest frequency that will pass current CThe frequency at which capacitive reactance equals Cinductive reactance DThe frequency at which power factor is at a minimum T4AE-2.2 RB QUnder what conditions does resonance occur in an Qelectrical circuit? AWhen the power factor is at a minimum BWhen inductive and capacitive reactances are equal CWhen the square root of the sum of the capacitive and Cinductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency DWhen the square root of the product of the capacitive and Dinductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency T4AE-2.3 RD QWhat is the term for the phenomena which occurs in an Qelectrical circuit when the inductive reactance equals the Qcapacitive reactance? AReactive quiescence BHigh Q CReactive equilibrium DResonance T4AE-2.4 RB QWhat is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a Qseries R-L-C circuit at resonance? AHigh, as compared to the circuit resistance BApproximately equal to the circuit resistance CApproximately equal to XL DApproximately equal to XC T4AE-2.5 RA QWhat is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a Qparallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? AApproximately equal to the circuit resistance BApproximately equal to XL CLow, as compared to the circuit resistance DApproximately equal to XC T4AE-2.6 RB QWhat is the characteristic of the current flow in a Qseries R-L-C circuit at resonance? AIt is at a minimum BIt is at a maximum CIt is DC DIt is zero T4AE-2.7 RB QWhat is the characteristic of the current flow in a Qparallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? AThe current circulating in the parallel elements is at a Aminimum BThe current circulating in the parallel elements is at a Bmaximum CThe current circulating in the parallel elements is DC DThe current circulating in the parallel elements is zero T4AE-3.1 RA QWhat is the ++++skin effect++++? AThe phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of Athe conductor, close to the surface, as frequency increases BThe phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of Bthe conductor, close to the surface, as frequency decreases CThe phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the Cconductor increase the impedance DThe phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the Dconductor decrease the impedance T4AE-3.2 RC QWhat is the term for the phenomenon where most of an RF Qcurrent flows along the surface of the conductor? ALayer effect BSeeburg Effect CSkin effect DResonance T4AE-3.3 RA QWhere does practically all of the RF current flow in a Qconductor? AAlong the surface BIn the center of the conductor CIn the magnetic field around the conductor DIn the electromagnetic field in the conductor center T4AE-3.4 RA QWhy does practically all of an RF current flow within a Qfew thousandths-of-an-inch of the conductor's surface? ABecause of skin effect BBecause the RF resistance of the conductor is much less Bthan the DC resistance CBecause of heating of the metal at the conductor's interior DBecause of the AC-resistance of the conductor's self inductance T4AE-3.5 RC QWhy is the resistance of a conductor different for RF Qcurrent than for DC? ABecause the insulation conducts current at radio Afrequencies BBecause of the Heisenburg Effect CBecause of skin effect DBecause conductors are non-linear devices T4AE-4.1 RB QWhat is a ++++magnetic field++++? ACurrent flow through space around a permanent magnet BA force set up when current flows through a conductor CThe force between the plates of a charged capacitor DThe force that drives current through a resistor T4AE-4.2 RD QIn what direction is the magnetic field about a conductor Qwhen current is flowing? AIn the same direction as the current BIn a direction opposite to the current flow CIn all directions; omnidirectional DIn a direction determined by the left hand rule T4AE-4.3 RC QWhat device is used to store electrical energy in an Qelectrostatic field? AA battery BA transformer CA capacitor DAn inductor T4AE-4.4 RB QWhat is the term used to express the amount of electrical Qenergy stored in an electrostatic field? ACoulombs BJoules CWatts DVolts T4AE-4.5 RB QWhat factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor? AArea of the plates, voltage on the plates and distance Abetween the plates BArea of the plates, distance between the plates and the Bdielectric constant of the material between the plates CArea of the plates, voltage on the plates and the Cdielectric constant of the material between the plates DArea of the plates, amount of charge on the plates and the Ddielectric constant of the material between the plates T4AE-4.6 RA QWhat is the dielectric constant for air? AApproximately 1 BApproximately 2 CApproximately 4 DApproximately 0 T4AE-4.7 RD QWhat determines the strength of the magnetic field around Qa conductor? AThe resistance divided by the current BThe ratio of the current to the resistance CThe diameter of the conductor DThe amount of current T4AE-5.1 G4AE-5-1 RC QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A79.6 MHz B1.78 MHz C3.56 MHz D7.96 MHz T4AE-5.2 G4AE-5-1 RB QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-1 when L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A1.99 kHz B1.78 MHz C1.99 MHz D1.78 kHz T4AE-5.3 G4AE-5-1 RC QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A3.18 MHz B3.18 kHz C7.12 MHz D7.12 kHz T4AE-5.4 G4AE-5-1 RA QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-1 when L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A10.1 MHz B63.7 MHz C10.1 kHz D63.7 kHz T4AE-5.5 G4AE-5-1 RB QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A13.1 MHz B14.5 MHz C14.5 kHz D13.1 kHz T4AE-5.6 G4AE-5-1 RD QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A19.9 kHz B17.8 kHz C19.9 MHz D17.8 MHz T4AE-5.7 G4AE-5-1 RC QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-1 when L is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A2.84 MHz B28.4 MHz C21.3 MHz D2.13 MHz T4AE-5.8 G4AE-5-1 RA QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A23.7 MHz B23.7 kHz C35.4 kHz D35.4 MHz T4AE-5.9 G4AE-5-1 RB QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A28.1 kHz B28.1 MHz C49.7 MHz D49.7 kHz T4AE-5.10 G4AE-5-1 RC QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-1 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A17.7 MHz B17.7 kHz C53.1 MHz D53.1 kHz T4AE-5.11 G4AE-5-2 RA QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-2 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A50.3 MHz B15.9 MHz C15.9 kHz D50.3 kHz T4AE-5.12 G4AE-5-2 RB QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A29.1 kHz B29.1 MHz C5.31 MHz D5.31 kHz T4AE-5.13 G4AE-5-2 RC QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-2 when L is 5 microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A23.7 kHz B3.54 kHz C23.7 MHz D3.54 MHz T4AE-5.14 G4AE-5-2 RD QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A2.65 kHz B20.5 kHz C2.65 MHz D20.5 MHz T4AE-5.15 G4AE-5-2 RA QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-2 when L is 15 microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A18.4 MHz B2.12 MHz C18.4 kHz D2.12 kHz T4AE-5.16 G4AE-5-2 RB QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-2 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A1.33 kHz B14.5 MHz C1.33 MHz D14.5 kHz T4AE-5.17 G4AE-5-2 RC QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-2 when L is 40 microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A6.63 MHz B6.63 kHz C10.3 MHz D10.3 kHz T4AE-5.18 G4AE-5-2 RD QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-2 when L is 10 microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A3.18 MHz B3.18 kHz C7.12 kHz D7.12 MHz T4AE-5.19 G4AE-5-2 RA QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-2 when L is 200 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A3.56 MHz B7.96 kHz C3.56 kHz D7.96 MHz T4AE-5.20 G4AE-5-2 RB QWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure Q4AE-5-2 when L is 90 microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads Q[see graphics addendum]? A1.77 MHz B1.68 MHz C1.77 kHz D1.68 kHz T4AE-5.21 RA QWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant Qcircuit which has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95? A18.9 kHz B1.89 kHz C189 Hz D58.7 kHz T4AE-5.22 RD QWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant Qcircuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218? A58.7 kHz B606 kHz C47.3 kHz D16.5 kHz T4AE-5.23 RC QWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant Qcircuit which has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? A211 kHz B16.5 kHz C47.3 kHz D21.1 kHz T4AE-5.24 RD QWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant Qcircuit which has a resonant frequency of 12.8 MHz and a Q of Q218? A21.1 kHz B27.9 kHz C17 kHz D58.7 kHz T4AE-5.25 RA QWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant Qcircuit which has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of Q150? A95 kHz B10.5 kHz C10.5 MHz D17 kHz T4AE-5.26 RD QWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant Qcircuit which has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of Q95? A4.49 kHz B44.9 kHz C22.3 kHz D222.6 kHz T4AE-5.27 RB QWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant Qcircuit which has a resonant frequency of 10.1 MHz and a Q of Q225? A4.49 kHz B44.9 kHz C22.3 kHz D223 kHz T4AE-5.28 RA QWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant Qcircuit which has a resonant frequency of 18.1 MHz and a Q of Q195? A92.8 kHz B10.8 kHz C22.3 kHz D44.9 kHz T4AE-5.29 RC QWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant Qcircuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? A22.3 kHz B76.2 kHz C31.4 kHz D10.8 kHz T4AE-5.30 RD QWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant Qcircuit which has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of Q187? A22.3 kHz B10.8 kHz C13.1 kHz D76.2 kHz T4AE-5.31 G4AE-5-3 RA QWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the Qresonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 2.7 Qmicrohenrys and the resistance is 18,000 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A75.1 B7.51 C71.5 D0.013 T4AE-5.32 G4AE-5-3 RB QWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the Qresonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 4.7 Qmicrohenrys and the resistance is 18,000 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A4.31 B43.1 C13.3 D0.023 T4AE-5.33 G4AE-5-3 RC QWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the Qresonant frequency is 4.468 MHz, the inductance is 47 microhenrys Qand the resistance is 180 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A0.00735 B7.35 C0.136 D13.3 T4AE-5.34 G4AE-5-3 RD QWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the Qresonant frequency is 14.225 MHz, the inductance is 3.5 Qmicrohenrys and the resistance is 10,000 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A7.35 B0.0319 C71.5 D31.9 T4AE-5.35 G4AE-5-3 RD QWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the Qresonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 8.2 Qmicrohenrys and the resistance is 1,000 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A36.8 B0.273 C0.368 D2.73 T4AE-5.36 G4AE-5-3 RA QWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the Qresonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 10.1 Qmicrohenrys and the resistance is 100 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A0.221 B4.52 C0.00452 D22.1 T4AE-5.37 G4AE-5-3 RB QWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the Qresonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 12.6 Qmicrohenrys and the resistance is 22,000 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A22.1 B39 C25.6 D0.0256 T4AE-5.38 G4AE-5-3 RB QWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the Qresonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 3 microhenrys Qand the resistance is 2,200 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A0.031 B32.2 C31.1 D25.6 T4AE-5.39 G4AE-5-3 RD QWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the Qresonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 42 microhenrys Qand the resistance is 220 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A23 B0.00435 C4.35 D0.23 T4AE-5.40 G4AE-5-3 RA QWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the Qresonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 43 microhenrys Qand the resistance is 1,800 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A1.84 B0.543 C54.3 D23 T4AE-6.1 G4AE-6 RA QWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and Qthe current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 Qohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current B53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current T4AE-6.2 G4AE-6 RB QWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and Qthe current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 Qohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D76 degrees with the voltage leading the current T4AE-6.3 G4AE-6 RC QWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and Qthe current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 500 Qohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 250 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current B14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current C14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current T4AE-6.4 G4AE-6 RB QWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and Qthe current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 Qohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A76 degrees with the voltage leading the current B14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current T4AE-6.5 G4AE-6 RD QWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and Qthe current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 Qohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current T4AE-6.6 G4AE-6 RB QWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and Qthe current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 Qohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C14 degrees with the voltage leading the current D76 degrees with the voltage leading the current T4AE-6.7 G4AE-6 RA QWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and Qthe current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 Qohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms [see graphics addendum]? A14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current T4AE-6.8 G4AE-6 RD QWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and Qthe current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 250 Qohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 500 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current C14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current T4AE-6.9 G4AE-6 RD QWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and Qthe current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 Qohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A76 degrees with the voltage leading the current B76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D14 degrees with the voltage leading the current T4AE-6.10 G4AE-6 RC QWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and Qthe current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 Qohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms Q[see graphics addendum]? A36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current B53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current T4AE-7.1 RA QWhy would the rate at which electrical energy is used in Qa circuit be less than the product of the magnitudes of the AC Qvoltage and current? ABecause there is a phase angle that is greater than zero Abetween the current and voltage BBecause there are only resistances in the circuit CBecause there are no reactances in the circuit DBecause there is a phase angle that is equal to zero Dbetween the current and voltage T4AE-7.2 RA QIn a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of Qphase, how can the true power be determined? ABy multiplying the apparent power times the power factor BBy subtracting the apparent power from the power factor CBy dividing the apparent power by the power factor DBy multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current T4AE-7.3 RC QWhat does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having Qa 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A1.414 B0.866 C0.5 D1.73 T4AE-7.4 RD QWhat does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having Qa 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A0.866 B1.0 C0.5 D0.707 T4AE-7.5 RC QWhat does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having Qa 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A1.73 B0.5 C0.866 D0.577 T4AE-7.6 RB QHow many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a Qpower factor of 0.2 when the input is 100-V AC and 4-amperes is Qbeing drawn? A400 watts B80 watts C2000 watts D50 watts T4AE-7.7 RD QHow many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a Qpower factor of 0.6 when the input is 200-V AC and 5-amperes is Qbeing drawn? A200 watts B1000 watts C1600 watts D600 watts T4AE-8.1 RB QWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in Qrepeater operation with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB Qfeedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB Qantenna gain? A158 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Ahalf-wave dipole B39.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Bhalf-wave dipole C251 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Chalf-wave dipole D69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Dhalf-wave dipole T4AE-8.2 RC QWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in Qrepeater operation with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB Qfeedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB Qantenna gain? A300 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Ahalf-wave dipole B315 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Bhalf-wave dipole C31.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Chalf-wave dipole D69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Dhalf-wave dipole T4AE-8.3 RD QWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in Qrepeater operation with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB Qfeedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB Qantenna gain? A600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Ahalf-wave dipole B75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Bhalf-wave dipole C18.75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Chalf-wave dipole D150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Dhalf-wave dipole T4AE-8.4 RA QWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in Qrepeater operation with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB Qfeedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB Qantenna gain? A37.6 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Ahalf-wave dipole B237 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Bhalf-wave dipole C150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Chalf-wave dipole D23.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Dhalf-wave dipole T4AE-8.5 RD QWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in Qrepeater operation with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB Qfeedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB Qantenna gain? A631 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Ahalf-wave dipole B400 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Bhalf-wave dipole C25 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Chalf-wave dipole D100 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Dhalf-wave dipole T4AE-8.6 RB QWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in Qrepeater operation with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB Qfeedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB Qantenna gain? A800 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Ahalf-wave dipole B126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Bhalf-wave dipole C12.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Chalf-wave dipole D1260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Dhalf-wave dipole T4AE-8.7 RC QWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in Qrepeater operation with l20 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB Qfeedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB Qantenna gain? A601 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Ahalf-wave dipole B240 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Bhalf-wave dipole C60 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Chalf-wave dipole D379 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Dhalf-wave dipole T4AE-8.8 RD QWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in Qrepeater operation with 150 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB Qfeedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB Qantenna gain? A946 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Ahalf-wave dipole B37.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Bhalf-wave dipole C600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Chalf-wave dipole D150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Dhalf-wave dipole T4AE-8.9 RA QWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in Qrepeater operation with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB Qfeedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB Qantenna gain? A317 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Ahalf-wave dipole B2000 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Bhalf-wave dipole C126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Chalf-wave dipole D260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Dhalf-wave dipole T4AE-8.10 RD QWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in Qrepeater operation with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB Qfeedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB Qantenna gain? A252 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Ahalf-wave dipole B63.2 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Bhalf-wave dipole C632 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Chalf-wave dipole D159 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a Dhalf-wave dipole T4AE-9.1 G4AE-9 RB QIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the Qsame voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, QR1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? AR3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts BR3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts CR3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts DR3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts T4AE-9.2 G4AE-9 RC QIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the Qsame voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, QR1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? AR3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts BR3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts CR3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts DR3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts T4AE-9.3 G4AE-9 RC QIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the Qsame voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, QR1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? AR3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts BR3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts CR3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts DR3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts T4AE-9.4 G4AE-9 RD QIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the Qsame voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, QR1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? AR3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts BR3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts CR3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts DR3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts T4AE-9.5 G4AE-9 RC QIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the Qsame voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, QR1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? AR3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts BR3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts CR3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts DR3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts T4AE-9.6 G4AE-9 RA QIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the Qsame voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, QR1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? AR3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts BR3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts CR3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts DR3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts T4AE-9.7 G4AE-9 RB QIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the Qsame voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, QR1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? AR3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts BR3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts CR3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts DR3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts T4AE-9.8 G4AE-9 RB QIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the Qsame voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, QR1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? AR3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts BR3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts CR3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts DR3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts T4AE-9.9 G4AE-9 RC QIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the Qsame voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, QR1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? AR3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts BR3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts CR3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts DR3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts T4AE-9.10 G4AE-9 RC QIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the Qsame voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, QR1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? AR3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts BR3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts CR3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts DR3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts N6 T4AF-1.1 G4AF-1_1 RD QWhat is the schematic symbol for a semiconductor Qdiode/rectifier [see graphics addendum]? A1 B2 C3 D4 T4AF-1.2 RA QStructurally, what are the two main categories of Qsemiconductor diodes? AJunction and point contact BElectrolytic and junction CElectrolytic and point contact DVacuum and point contact T4AF-1.3 G4AF-1_3 RD QWhat is the schematic symbol for a Zener diode [see graphics addendum]? A1 B2 C3 D4 T4AF-1.4 RC QWhat are the two primary classifications of Zener diodes? AHot carrier and tunnel BVaractor and rectifying CVoltage regulator and voltage reference DForward and reversed biased T4AF-1.5 RB QWhat is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode? AA constant current under conditions of varying voltage BA constant voltage under conditions of varying current CA negative resistance region DAn internal capacitance that varies with the applied Dvoltage T4AF-1.6 RA QWhat is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener Qdiodes? A2.4 volts to 200 volts B1.2 volts to 7 volts C3 volts to 2000 volts D1.2 volts to 5.6 volts T4AF-1.7 G4AF-1_7 RC QWhat is the schematic symbol for a tunnel diode [see graphics addendum]? A1 B2 C3 D4 T4AF-1.8 RC QWhat is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode? AA high forward resistance BA very high PIV CA negative resistance region DA high forward current rating T4AF-1.9 RC QWhat special type of diode is capable of both Qamplification and oscillation? APoint contact diodes BZener diodes CTunnel diodes DJunction diodes T4AF-1.10 G4AF-1_10 RD QWhat is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode [see graphics addendum]? A1 B2 C3 D4 T4AF-1.11 RA QWhat type of semiconductor diode varies its internal Qcapacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies? AA varactor diode BA tunnel diode CA silicon-controlled rectifier DA Zener diode T4AF-1.12 RB QWhat is the principal characteristic of a varactor Qdiode? AIt has a constant voltage under conditions of varying Acurrent BIts internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage CIt has a negative resistance region DIt has a very high PIV T4AF-1.13 RD QWhat is a common use of a varactor diode? AAs a constant current source BAs a constant voltage source CAs a voltage controlled inductance DAs a voltage controlled capacitance T4AF-1.14 RD QWhat is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? AAs balanced mixers in SSB generation BAs a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control Bcircuit CAs a constant voltage reference in a power supply DAs VHF and UHF mixers and detectors T4AF-1.15 RB QWhat limits the maximum forward current in a junction Qdiode? AThe peak inverse voltage BThe junction temperature CThe forward voltage DThe back EMF T4AF-1.16 RD QHow are junction diodes rated? AMaximum forward current and capacitance BMaximum reverse current and PIV CMaximum reverse current and capacitance DMaximum forward current and PIV T4AF-1.17 RC QWhat is a common use for point contact diodes? AAs a constant current source BAs a constant voltage source CAs an RF detector DAs a high voltage rectifier T4AF-1.18 RD QWhat type of diode is made of a metal whisker touching a Qvery small semi-conductor die? AZener diode BVaractor diode CJunction diode DPoint contact diode T4AF-1.19 RC QWhat is one common use for PIN diodes? AAs a constant current source BAs a constant voltage source CAs an RF switch DAs a high voltage rectifier T4AF-1.20 RC QWhat special type of diode is often used in RF switches, Qattenuators, and various types of phase shifting devices? ATunnel diodes BVaractor diodes CPIN diodes DJunction diodes T4AF-2.1 G4AF-2_1 RC QWhat is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor [see graphics addendum]? A1 B2 C3 D4 T4AF-2.2 G4AF-2_2 RB QWhat is the schematic symbol for an NPN transistor [see graphics addendum]? A1 B2 C3 D4 T4AF-2.3 RB QWhat are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor? ACathode, plate and grid BBase, collector and emitter CGate, source and sink DInput, output and ground T4AF-2.4 RC QWhat is the meaning of the term ++++alpha++++ with regard to Qbipolar transistors? AThe change of collector current with respect to base Acurrent BThe change of base current with respect to collector Bcurrent CThe change of collector current with respect to emitter Ccurrent DThe change of collector current with respect to gate Dcurrent T4AF-2.5 RC QWhat is the term used to express the ratio of change in QDC collector current to a change in emitter current in a bipolar Qtransistor? AGamma BEpsilon CAlpha DBeta T4AF-2.6 RA QWhat is the meaning of the term ++++beta++++ with regard to Qbipolar transistors? AThe change of collector current with respect to base Acurrent BThe change of base current with respect to emitter current CThe change of collector current with respect to emitter Ccurrent DThe change in base current with respect to gate current T4AF-2.7 RB QWhat is the term used to express the ratio of change in Qthe DC collector current to a change in base current in a bipolar Qtransistor? AAlpha BBeta CGamma DDelta T4AF-2.8 RB QWhat is the meaning of the term ++++alpha cutoff frequency++++ Qwith regard to bipolar transistors? AThe practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in Acommon emitter configuration BThe practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in Bcommon base configuration CThe practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in Ccommon base configuration DThe practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in Dcommon emitter configuration T4AF-2.9 RB QWhat is the term used to express that frequency at which Qthe grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain Qobtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor? ACorner frequency BAlpha cutoff frequency CBeta cutoff frequency DAlpha rejection frequency T4AF-2.10 RB QWhat is the meaning of the term ++++beta cutoff frequency++++ Qwith regard to a bipolar transistor? AThat frequency at which the grounded base current gain has Adecreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor BThat frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain Bhas decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor CThat frequency at which the grounded collector current gain Chas decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor DThat frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has Ddecreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor T4AF-2.11 RA QWhat is the meaning of the term ++++transition region++++ with Qregard to a transistor? AAn area of low charge density around the P-N junction BThe area of maximum P-type charge CThe area of maximum N-type charge DThe point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N- Dtype material T4AF-2.12 RA QWhat does it mean for a transistor to be ++++fully Qsaturated++++? AThe collector current is at its maximum value BThe collector current is at its minimum value CThe transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value DThe transistor's Beta is at its maximum value T4AF-2.13 RC QWhat does it mean for a transistor to be ++++cut off++++? AThere is no base current BThe transistor is at its operating point CNo current flows from emitter to collector DMaximum current flows from emitter to collector T4AF-2.14 G4AF-2_14 RC QWhat is the schematic symbol for a unijunction Qtransistor [see graphics addendum]? A1 B2 C3 D4 T4AF-2.15 RA QWhat are the elements of a unijunction transistor? ABase 1, base 2 and emitter BGate, cathode and anode CGate, base 1 and base 2 DGate, source and sink T4AF-2.16 RA QFor best efficiency and stability, where on the load- Qline should a solid-state power amplifier be operated? AJust below the saturation point BJust above the saturation point CAt the saturation point DAt 1.414 times the saturation point T4AF-2.17 RB QWhat two elements widely used in semiconductor devices Qexhibit both metallic and non-metallic characteristics? ASilicon and gold BSilicon and germanium CGalena and germanium DGalena and bismuth T4AF-3.1 G4AF-3_1 RD QWhat is the schematic symbol for a silicon controlled Qrectifier [see graphics addendum]? A1 B2 C3 D4 T4AF-3.2 RA QWhat are the three terminals of an SCR? AAnode, cathode and gate BGate, source and sink CBase, collector and emitter DGate, base 1 and base 2 T4AF-3.3 RA QWhat are the two stable operating conditions of an SCR? AConducting and nonconducting BOscillating and quiescent CForward conducting and reverse conducting DNPN conduction and PNP conduction T4AF-3.4 RA QWhen an SCR is in the ++++triggered++++ or ++++on++++ condition, its Qelectrical characteristics are similar to what other solid-state Qdevice (as measured between its cathode and anode)? AThe junction diode BThe tunnel diode CThe hot-carrier diode DThe varactor diode T4AF-3.5 RD QUnder what operating condition does an SCR exhibit Qelectrical characteristics similar to a forward-biased silicon Qrectifier? ADuring a switching transition BWhen it is used as a detector CWhen it is gated "off" DWhen it is gated "on" T4AF-3.6 G4AF-3_6 RA QWhat is the schematic symbol for a TRIAC [see graphics addendum]? A1 B2 C3 D4 T4AF-3.7 RA QWhat is the transistor called which is fabricated as two Qcomplementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal? ATRIAC BBilateral SCR CUnijunction transistor DField effect transistor T4AF-3.8 RB QWhat are the three terminals of a TRIAC? AEmitter, base 1 and base 2 BGate, anode 1 and anode 2 CBase, emitter and collector DGate, source and sink T4AF-4.1 G4AF-4_1 RB QWhat is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode [see graphics addendum]? A1 B2 C3 D4 T4AF-4.2 RC QWhat is the normal operating voltage and current for a Qlight-emitting diode? A60 volts and 20 mA B5 volts and 50 mA C1.7 volts and 20 mA D0.7 volts and 60 mA T4AF-4.3 RB QWhat type of bias is required for an LED to produce Qluminescence? AReverse bias BForward bias CZero bias DInductive bias T4AF-4.4 RA QWhat are the advantages of using an LED? ALow power consumption and long life BHigh lumens per cm per cm and low power consumption CHigh lumens per cm per cm and low voltage requirement DA current flows when the device is exposed to a light Dsource T4AF-4.6 G4AF-4_6 RC QWhat is the schematic symbol for a neon lamp [see graphics addendum]? A1 B2 C3 D4 T4AF-4.7 RB QWhat type neon lamp is usually used in amateur radio Qwork? ANE-1 BNE-2 CNE-3 DNE-4 T4AF-4.8 RA QWhat is the DC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp? AApproximately 67 volts BApproximately 5 volts CApproximately 5.6 volts DApproximately 110 volts T4AF-4.9 RD QWhat is the AC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp? AApproximately 110-V AC RMS BApproximately 5-V AC RMS CApproximately 5.6-V AC RMS DApproximately 48-V AC RMS T4AF-4.10 RD QHow can a neon lamp be used to check for the presence of QRF? AA neon lamp will go out in the presence of RF BA neon lamp will change color in the presence of RF CA neon lamp will light only in the presence of very low Cfrequency RF DA neon lamp will light in the presence of RF T4AF-5.1 RB QWhat would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice Qband-pass filter for a single-sideband phone emission? A6 kHz at -6 dB B2.1 kHz at -6 dB C500 Hz at -6 dB D15 kHz at -6 dB T4AF-5.2 RC QWhat would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice Qband-pass filter for a double-sideband phone emission? A1 kHz at -6 dB B500 Hz at -6 dB C6 kHz at -6 dB D15 kHz at -6 dB T4AF-5.3 RD QWhat is a crystal lattice filter? AA power supply filter made with crisscrossed quartz Acrystals BAn audio filter made with 4 quartz crystals at 1-kHz Bintervals CA filter with infinitely wide and shallow skirts made using Cquartz crystals DA filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using Dquartz crystals T4AF-5.4 RD QWhat technique can be used to construct low cost, high Qperformance crystal lattice filters? ASplitting and tumbling BTumbling and grinding CEtching and splitting DEtching and grinding T4AF-5.5 RA QWhat determines the bandwidth and response shape in a Qcrystal lattice filter? AThe relative frequencies of the individual crystals BThe center frequency chosen for the filter CThe amplitude of the RF stage preceding the filter DThe amplitude of the signals passing through the Dfilter N10 T4AG-1.1 RD QWhat is a ++++linear electronic voltage regulator++++? AA regulator that has a ramp voltage as its output BA regulator in which the pass transistor switches from the B"off" state to the "on" state CA regulator in which the control device is switched on or Coff, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load Cconditions DA regulator in which the conduction of a control element is Dvaried in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current T4AG-1.2 RC QWhat is a ++++switching electronic voltage regulator++++? AA regulator in which the conduction of a control element is Avaried in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current BA regulator that provides more than one output voltage CA regulator in which the control device is switched on or Coff, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load Cconditions DA regulator that gives a ramp voltage at its output T4AG-1.3 RA QWhat device is usually used as a stable reference voltage Qin a linear voltage regulator? AA Zener diode BA tunnel diode CAn SCR DA varactor diode T4AG-1.4 RB QWhat type of linear regulator is used in applications Qrequiring efficient utilization of the primary power source? AA constant current source BA series regulator CA shunt regulator DA shunt current source T4AG-1.5 RD QWhat type of linear voltage regulator is used in Qapplications where the load on the unregulated voltage source Qmust be kept constant? AA constant current source BA series regulator CA shunt current source DA shunt regulator T4AG-1.6 RC QTo obtain the best temperature stability, what should be Qthe operating voltage of the reference diode in a linear voltage Qregulator? AApproximately 2.0 volts BApproximately 3.0 volts CApproximately 6.0 volts DApproximately 10.0 volts T4AG-1.7 RA QWhat is the meaning of the term ++++remote sensing++++ with Qregard to a linear voltage regulator? AThe feedback connection to the error amplifier is made Adirectly to the load BSensing is accomplished by wireless inductive loops CThe load connection is made outside the feedback loop DThe error amplifier compares the input voltage to the Dreference voltage T4AG-1.8 RD QWhat is a ++++three-terminal regulator++++? AA regulator that supplies three voltages with variable Acurrent BA regulator that supplies three voltages at a constant Bcurrent CA regulator containing three error amplifiers and sensing Ctransistors DA regulator containing a voltage reference, error Damplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element T4AG-1.9 RB QWhat are the important characteristics of a three- Qterminal regulator? AMaximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current Aand voltage BMaximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current Band voltage CMaximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current Cand maximum output voltage DMaximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage Dand maximum output current T4AG-2.1 RB QWhat is the distinguishing feature of a Class A Qamplifier? AOutput for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle BOutput for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle COutput for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees Cof the signal cycle DOutput for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle T4AG-2.2 RA QWhat class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence Qof output throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never Qgoes into the cutoff region? AClass A BClass B CClass C DClass D T4AG-2.3 RD QWhat is the distinguishing characteristic of a Class B Qamplifier? AOutput for the entire input signal cycle BOutput for greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 Bdegrees of the input signal cycle COutput for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle DOutput for 180 degrees of the input signal cycle T4AG-2.4 RB QWhat class of amplifier is distinguished by the flow of Qcurrent in the output essentially in 180 degree pulses? AClass A BClass B CClass C DClass D T4AG-2.5 RA QWhat is a ++++Class AB amplifier++++? AOutput is present for more than 180 degrees but less than A360 degrees of the signal input cycle BOutput is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input Bsignal cycle COutput is present for the entire input signal cycle DOutput is present for less than 180 degrees of the input Dsignal cycle T4AG-2.6 RA QWhat is the distinguishing feature of a ++++Class C Qamplifier++++? AOutput is present for less than 180 degrees of the input Asignal cycle BOutput is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input Bsignal cycle COutput is present for the entire input signal cycle DOutput is present for more than 180 degrees but less than D360 degrees of the input signal cycle T4AG-2.7 RC QWhat class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias Qbeing set well beyond cutoff? AClass A BClass B CClass C DClass AB T4AG-2.8 RC QWhich class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency? AClass A BClass B CClass C DClass AB T4AG-2.9 RA QWhich class of amplifier has the highest linearity and Qleast distortion? AClass A BClass B CClass C DClass AB T4AG-2.10 RD QWhich class of amplifier has an operating angle of more Qthan 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine Qwave signal? AClass A BClass B CClass C DClass AB T4AG-3.1 RB QWhat is an ++++L-network++++? AA network consisting entirely of four inductors BA network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor CA network used to generate a leading phase angle DA network used to generate a lagging phase angle T4AG-3.2 RD QWhat is a ++++pi-network++++? AA network consisting entirely of four inductors or four Acapacitors BA Power Incidence network CAn antenna matching network that is isolated from ground DA network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or Dtwo inductors and one capacitor T4AG-3.3 RB QWhat is a ++++pi-L-network++++? AA Phase Inverter Load network BA network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors CA network with only three discrete parts DA matching network in which all components are isolated Dfrom ground T4AG-3.4 RD QDoes the L-, pi-, or pi-L-network provide the greatest Qharmonic suppression? AL-network BPi-network CInverse L-network DPi-L-network T4AG-3.5 RC QWhat are the three most commonly used networks to Qaccomplish a match between an amplifying device and a Qtransmission line? AM-network, pi-network and T-network BT-network, M-network and Q-network CL-network, pi-network and pi-L-network DL-network, M-network and C-network T4AG-3.6 RD QHow are networks able to transform one impedance to Qanother? AResistances in the networks substitute for resistances in Athe load BThe matching network introduces negative resistance to Bcancel the resistive part of an impedance CThe matching network introduces transconductance to cancel Cthe reactive part of an impedance DThe matching network can cancel the reactive part of an Dimpedance and change the value of the resistive part of an Dimpedance T4AG-3.7 RB QWhich type of network offers the greater transformation Qratio? AL-network BPi-network CConstant-K DConstant-M T4AG-3.8 RA QWhy is the L-network of limited utility in impedance Qmatching? AIt matches a small impedance range BIt has limited power handling capabilities CIt is thermally unstable DIt is prone to self resonance T4AG-3.9 RD QWhat is an advantage of using a pi-L-network instead of a Qpi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of Qa vacuum-tube type transmitter and a multiband antenna? AGreater transformation range BHigher efficiency CLower losses DGreater harmonic suppression T4AG-3.10 RC QWhich type of network provides the greatest harmonic Qsuppression? AL-network BPi-network CPi-L-network DInverse-Pi network T4AG-4.1 RA QWhat are the three general groupings of filters? AHigh-pass, low-pass and band-pass BInductive, capacitive and resistive CAudio, radio and capacitive DHartley, Colpitts and Pierce T4AG-4.2 RC QWhat is a ++++constant-K filter++++? AA filter that uses Boltzmann's constant BA filter whose velocity factor is constant over a wide Brange of frequencies CA filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element Cimpedances is a constant for all frequencies DA filter whose input impedance varies widely over the Ddesign bandwidth T4AG-4.3 RA QWhat is an advantage of a constant-k filter? AIt has high attenuation for signals on frequencies far Aremoved from the passband BIt can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies CIt uses elliptic functions DThe ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can Dbe varied T4AG-4.4 RD QWhat is an ++++m-derived filter++++? AA filter whose input impedance varies widely over the Adesign bandwidth BA filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element Bimpedances is a constant for all frequencies CA filter whose schematic shape is the letter "M" DA filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired Dfrequencies too near cutoff for a constant-k filter. T4AG-4.5 RC QWhat are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth Qfilter? AA filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element Aimpedances is a constant for all frequencies BIt only requires capacitors CIt has a maximally flat response over its passband DIt requires only inductors T4AG-4.6 RB QWhat are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev Qfilter? AIt has a maximally flat response over its passband BIt allows ripple in the passband CIt only requires inductors DA filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element Dimpedances is a constant for all frequencies T4AG-4.7 RB QWhen would it be more desirable to use an m-derived Qfilter over a constant-k filter? AWhen the response must be maximally flat at one frequency BWhen you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that Bis too close to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter CWhen the number of components must be minimized DWhen high power levels must be filtered T4AG-5.1 RC QWhat condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? AIt must have a gain of less than 1 BIt must be neutralized CIt must have positive feedback sufficient to overcome Closses DIt must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the Dinput T4AG-5.2 RD QWhat are three major oscillator circuits often used in Qamateur radio equipment? ATaft, Pierce and negative feedback BColpitts, Hartley and Taft CTaft, Hartley and Pierce DColpitts, Hartley and Pierce T4AG-5.3 RD QHow is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a QHartley oscillator? AThrough a neutralizing capacitor BThrough a capacitive divider CThrough link coupling DThrough a tapped coil T4AG-5.4 RC QHow is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a QColpitts oscillator? AThrough a tapped coil BThrough link coupling CThrough a capacitive divider DThrough a neutralizing capacitor T4AG-5.5 RD QHow is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a QPierce oscillator? AThrough a tapped coil BThrough link coupling CThrough a capacitive divider DThrough capacitive coupling T4AG-5.6 RD QWhich of the three major oscillator circuits used in Qamateur radio equipment utilizes a quartz crystal? ANegative feedback BHartley CColpitts DPierce T4AG-5.7 RA QWhat is the ++++piezoelectric effect++++? AMechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a Avoltage BMechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a Bmagnetic field CThe generation of electrical energy by the application of Clight DReversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed Dto light T4AG-5.8 RB QWhat is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator? AIt is easy to neutralize BIt doesn't require an LC tank circuit CIt can be tuned over a wide range DIt has a high output power T4AG-5.9 RB QWhich type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a QVFO? APierce BColpitts CHartley DNegative feedback T4AG-5.10 RC QWhy is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in Qa VFO? AThe frequency is a linear function of the load impedance BIt can be used with or without crystal lock-in CIt is stable DIt has high output power T4AG-6.1 RD QWhat is meant by the term ++++modulation++++? AThe squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise Aratio is reached BCarrier rejection through phase nulling CA linear amplification mode DA mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a Dcarrier T4AG-6.2 RB QHow is an F3E FM-phone emission produced? AWith a balanced modulator on the audio amplifier BWith a reactance modulator on the oscillator CWith a reactance modulator on the final amplifier DWith a balanced modulator on the oscillator T4AG-6.3 RC QWhat is a ++++reactance modulator++++? AA circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance Ato produce FM signals BA circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance Bto produce AM signals CA circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance Cto produce FM signals DA circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance Dto produce AM signals T4AG-6.4 RB QWhat is a ++++balanced modulator++++? AAn FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation BA modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed Bcarrier signal CA modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed Ccarrier signal DA modulator that produces a full carrier signal T4AG-6.5 RD QHow can a single-sideband phone signal be generated? ABy driving a product detector with a DSB signal BBy using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer CBy using a loop modulator followed by a mixer DBy using a balanced modulator followed by a filter T4AG-6.6 RD QHow can a double-sideband phone signal be generated? ABy feeding a phase modulated signal into a low pass filter BBy using a balanced modulator followed by a filter CBy detuning a Hartley oscillator DBy modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier T4AG-7.1 RA QHow is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined? AEfficiency = (RF power out / DC power in) X 100% BEfficiency = (RF power in / RF power out) X 100% CEfficiency = (RF power in / DC power in) X 100% DEfficiency = (DC power in / RF power in) X 100% T4AG-7.2 RB QFor reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class QC amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 1500- Qvolts at the plate and 500-milliamperes plate current? A2000 ohms B1500 ohms C4800 ohms D480 ohms T4AG-7.3 RC QFor reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class QB amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 800- Qvolts at the plate and 75-milliamperes plate current? A679.4 ohms B60 ohms C6794 ohms D10,667 ohms T4AG-7.4 RA QFor reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class QA amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 250- Qvolts at the plate and 25-milliamperes plate current? A7692 ohms B3250 ohms C325 ohms D769.2 ohms T4AG-7.5 RB QFor reasonably efficient operation of a transistor Qamplifier, what should the load resistance be with 12-volts at Qthe collector and 5 watts power output? A100.3 ohms B14.4 ohms C10.3 ohms D144 ohms T4AG-7.6 RB QWhat is the ++++flywheel effect++++? AThe continued motion of a radio wave through space when the Atransmitter is turned off BThe back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC Bcircuit CThe use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter Crectified AC DThe transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by Dseveral hops through the ionosphere T4AG-7.7 RC QHow can a power amplifier be neutralized? ABy increasing the grid drive BBy feeding back an in-phase component of the output to the Binput CBy feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to Cthe input DBy feeding back an out-of-phase component of the input to Dthe output T4AG-7.8 RB QWhat order of Q is required by a tank-circuit sufficient Qto reduce harmonics to an acceptable level? AApproximately 120 BApproximately 12 CApproximately 1200 DApproximately 1.2 T4AG-7.9 RC QHow can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power Qamplifier? ABy tuning for maximum SWR BBy tuning for maximum power output CBy neutralization DBy tuning the output T4AG-7.10 RD QWhat is the procedure for tuning a power amplifier Qhaving an output pi-network? AAdjust the loading capacitor to maximum capacitance and Athen dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor BAlternately increase the plate current with the tuning Bcapacitor and dip the plate current with the loading capacitor CAdjust the tuning capacitor to maximum capacitance and then Cdip the plate current with the loading capacitor DAlternately increase the plate current with the loading Dcapacitor and dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor T4AG-8.1 RB QWhat is the process of ++++detection++++? AThe process of masking out the intelligence on a received Acarrier to make an S-meter operational BThe recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal CThe modulation of a carrier DThe mixing of noise with the received signal T4AG-8.2 RA QWhat is the principle of detection in a diode detector? ARectification and filtering of RF BBreakdown of the Zener voltage CMixing with noise in the transition region of the diode DThe change of reactance in the diode with respect to Dfrequency T4AG-8.3 RC QWhat is a ++++product detector++++? AA detector that provides local oscillations for input to Athe mixer BA detector that amplifies and narrows the band-pass Bfrequencies CA detector that uses a mixing process with a locally Cgenerated carrier DA detector used to detect cross-modulation products T4AG-8.4 RB QHow are FM-phone signals detected? ABy a balanced modulator BBy a frequency discriminator CBy a product detector DBy a phase splitter T4AG-8.5 RA QWhat is a ++++frequency discriminator++++? AA circuit for detecting FM signals BA circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals CAn automatic bandswitching circuit DAn FM generator T4AG-8.6 RD QWhat is the ++++mixing process++++? AThe elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase Acomparison BThe elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase Bdifferentiation CDistortion caused by auroral propagation DThe combination of two signals to produce sum and Ddifference frequencies T4AG-8.7 RC QWhat are the principal frequencies which appear at the Qoutput of a mixer circuit? ATwo and four times the original frequency BThe sum, difference and square root of the input Bfrequencies CThe original frequencies and the sum and difference Cfrequencies D1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency T4AG-8.8 RB QWhat are the advantages of the frequency-conversion Qprocess? AAutomatic squelching and increased selectivity BIncreased selectivity and optimal tuned-circuit design CAutomatic soft limiting and automatic squelching DAutomatic detection in the RF amplifier and increased Dselectivity T4AG-8.9 RA QWhat occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of Qsignal energy reaches the mixer circuit? ASpurious mixer products are generated BMixer blanking occurs CAutomatic limiting occurs DA beat frequency is generated T4AG-9.1 RB QHow much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of Qa receiver? AAs much gain as possible short of self oscillation BSufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise Bgenerated in the first mixer stage CSufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the Cfirst mixer stage DIt depends on the amplification factor of the first IF Dstage T4AG-9.2 RC QWhy should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver only have Qsufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated Qin the first mixer stage? ATo prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being Agenerated BTo prevent bleed-through of the desired signal CTo prevent the generation of spurious mixer products DTo prevent bleed-through of the local oscillator T4AG-9.3 RC QWhat is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a Qreceiver? ATo provide most of the receiver gain BTo vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC CTo improve the receiver's noise figure DTo develop the AGC voltage T4AG-9.4 RA QWhat is an ++++i-f amplifier stage++++? AA fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier BA receiver demodulator CA receiver filter DA buffer oscillator T4AG-9.5 RC QWhat factors should be considered when selecting an Qintermediate frequency? ACross-modulation distortion and interference BInterference to other services CImage rejection and selectivity DNoise figure and distortion T4AG-9.6 RD QWhat is the primary purpose of the first i-f amplifier Qstage in a receiver? ANoise figure performance BTune out cross-modulation distortion CDynamic response DSelectivity T4AG-9.7 RB QWhat is the primary purpose of the final i-f amplifier Qstage in a receiver? ADynamic response BGain CNoise figure performance DBypass undesired signals T4AG-10.1 G4AG-10 RC QWhat type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-10 [see graphics addendum]? ASwitching voltage regulator BLinear voltage regulator CCommon emitter amplifier DEmitter follower amplifier T4AG-10.2 G4AG-10 RB QIn Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R1 and R2 [see graphics addendum]? ALoad resistors BFixed bias CSelf bias DFeedback T4AG-10.3 G4AG-10 RD QIn Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C1 [see graphics addendum]? ADecoupling BOutput coupling CSelf bias DInput coupling T4AG-10.4 G4AG-10 RD QIn Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C3 [see graphics addendum]? AAC feedback BInput coupling CPower supply decoupling DEmitter bypass T4AG-10.5 G4AG-10 RD QIn Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R3 [see graphics addendum]? AFixed bias BEmitter bypass COutput load resistor DSelf bias T4AG-11.1 G4AG-11 RB QWhat type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-11 [see graphics addendum]? AHigh-gain amplifier BCommon-collector amplifier CLinear voltage regulator DGrounded-emitter amplifier T4AG-11.2 G4AG-11 RA QIn Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of R [see graphics addendum]? AEmitter load BFixed bias CCollector load DVoltage regulation T4AG-11.3 G4AG-11 RD QIn Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C1 [see graphics addendum]? AInput coupling BOutput coupling CEmitter bypass DCollector bypass T4AG-11.4 G4AG-11 RA QIn Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C2 [see graphics addendum]? AOutput coupling BEmitter bypass CInput coupling DHum filtering T4AG-12.1 G4AG-12 RC QWhat type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-12 Q[see graphics addendum]? ASwitching voltage regulator BGrounded emitter amplifier CLinear voltage regulator DEmitter follower T4AG-12.2 G4AG-12 RB QWhat is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure Q4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? ALine voltage stabilization BVoltage reference CPeak clipping DHum filtering T4AG-12.3 G4AG-12 RC QWhat is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure Q4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? AIt increases the output ripple BIt provides a constant load for the voltage source CIt increases the current handling capability DIt provides D1 with current T4AG-12.4 G4AG-12 RD QWhat is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure Q4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? AIt resonates at the ripple frequency BIt provides fixed bias for Q1 CIt decouples the output DIt filters the supply voltage T4AG-12.5 G4AG-12 RA QWhat is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure Q4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? AIt bypasses hum around D1 BIt is a brute force filter for the output CTo self resonate at the hum frequency DTo provide fixed DC bias for Q1 T4AG-12.6 G4AG-12 RA QWhat is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure Q4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? AIt prevents self-oscillation BIt provides brute force filtering of the output CIt provides fixed bias for Q1 DIt clips the peaks of the ripple T4AG-12.7 G4AG-12 RC QWhat is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure Q4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? AIt provides a constant load to the voltage source BIt couples hum to D1 CIt supplies current to D1 DIt bypasses hum around D1 T4AG-12.8 G4AG-12 RD QWhat is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure Q4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? AIt provides fixed bias for Q1 BIt provides fixed bias for D1 CIt decouples hum from D1 DIt provides a constant minimum load for Q1 T4AG-13.1 RC QWhat value capacitor would be required to tune a 20- Qmicrohenry inductor to resonate in the 80-meter wavelength band? A150 picofarads B200 picofarads C100 picofarads D100 microfarads T4AG-13.2 RD QWhat value inductor would be required to tune a 100- Qpicofarad capacitor to resonate in the 40-meter wavelength band? A200 microhenrys B150 microhenrys C5 millihenrys D5 microhenrys T4AG-13.3 RA QWhat value capacitor would be required to tune a 2- Qmicrohenry inductor to resonate in the 20-meter wavelength band? A64 picofarads B6 picofarads C12 picofarads D88 microfarads T4AG-13.4 RC QWhat value inductor would be required to tune a 15- Qpicofarad capacitor to resonate in the 15-meter wavelength band? A2 microhenrys B30 microhenrys C4 microhenrys D15 microhenrys T4AG-13.5 RA QWhat value capacitor would be required to tune a 100- Qmicrohenry inductor to resonate in the 160-meter wavelength band? A78 picofarads B25 picofarads C405 picofarads D40.5 microfarads N6 T4AH-1.1 RA QWhat is emission ++++A3C++++? AFacsimile BRTTY CATV DSlow Scan TV T4AH-1.2 RB QWhat type of emission is produced when an amplitude Qmodulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? AA3F BA3C CF3F DF3C T4AH-1.3 RC QWhat is ++++facsimile++++? AThe transmission of tone-modulated telegraphy BThe transmission of a pattern of printed characters Bdesigned to form a picture CThe transmission of printed pictures by electrical means DThe transmission of moving pictures by electrical means T4AH-1.4 RD QWhat is emission ++++F3C++++? AVoice transmission BSlow Scan TV CRTTY DFacsimile T4AH-1.5 RA QWhat type of emission is produced when a frequency Qmodulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? AF3C BA3C CF3F DA3F T4AH-1.6 RB QWhat is emission ++++A3F++++? ARTTY BTelevision CSSB DModulated CW T4AH-1.7 RB QWhat type of emission is produced when an amplitude Qmodulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal? AF3F BA3F CA3C DF3C T4AH-1.8 RD QWhat is emission ++++F3F++++? AModulated CW BFacsimile CRTTY DTelevision T4AH-1.9 RC QWhat type of emission is produced when a frequency Qmodulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal? AA3F BA3C CF3F DF3C T4AH-1.10 RD QWhat type of emission results when a single sideband Qtransmitter is used for slow-scan television? AJ3A BF3F CA3F DJ3F T4AH-2.1 RC QHow can an FM-phone signal be produced? ABy modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier BBy modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier CBy using a reactance modulator on an oscillator DBy using a balanced modulator on an oscillator T4AH-2.2 RD QHow can a double-sideband phone signal be produced? ABy using a reactance modulator on an oscillator BBy varying the voltage to the varactor in an oscillator Bcircuit CBy using a phase detector, oscillator and filter in a Cfeedback loop DBy modulating the plate supply voltage to a class C Damplifier T4AH-2.3 RA QHow can a single-sideband phone signal be produced? ABy producing a double sideband signal with a balanced Amodulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by filtering BBy producing a double sideband signal with a balanced Bmodulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by heterodyning CBy producing a double sideband signal with a balanced Cmodulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by mixing DBy producing a double sideband signal with a balanced Dmodulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by Dneutralization T4AH-3.1 RB QWhat is meant by the term ++++deviation ratio++++? AThe ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center Acarrier frequency BThe ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the Bhighest audio modulating frequency CThe ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio Cmodulating frequency DThe ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the Daverage audio modulating frequency T4AH-3.2 RC QIn an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum Qdeviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio Qmodulating frequency? ADeviation index BModulation index CDeviation ratio DModulation ratio T4AH-3.3 RD QWhat is the deviation ratio for an FM-phone signal having Qa maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a Qmaximum modulation rate of 3 kHz? A60 B0.16 C0.6 D1.66 T4AH-3.4 RA QWhat is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having Qa maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting Qa maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz? A2.14 B0.214 C0.47 D47 T4AH-4.1 RB QWhat is meant by the term ++++modulation index++++? AThe processor index BThe ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated Bsignal and the modulating frequency CThe FM signal-to-noise ratio DThe ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the Dhighest audio modulating frequency T4AH-4.2 RD QIn an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the ratio Qbetween the deviation of the frequency-modulated signal and the Qmodulating frequency? AFM compressibility BQuieting index CPercentage of modulation DModulation index T4AH-4.3 RD QHow does the modulation index of a phase-modulated Qemission vary with the modulated frequency? AThe modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency A(the modulated frequency) increases BThe modulation index decreases as the RF carrier frequency B(the modulated frequency) increases CThe modulation index varies with the square root of the RF Ccarrier frequency (the modulated frequency) DThe modulation index does not depend on the RF carrier Dfrequency (the modulated frequency) T4AH-4.4 RA QIn an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency Qdeviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, what Qis the modulation index when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz? A3 B0.3 C3000 D1000 T4AH-4.5 RB QWhat is the modulation index of an FM-phone transmitter Qproducing an instantaneous carrier deviation of 6 kHz when Qmodulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency? A6000 B3 C2000 D1/3 T4AH-5.1 RC QWhat are ++++electromagnetic waves++++? AAlternating currents in the core of an electromagnet BA wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to Beach other CA wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field Cat right angles to each other DA wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to Deach other T4AH-5.2 RD QWhat is a ++++wave front++++? AA voltage pulse in a conductor BA current pulse in a conductor CA voltage pulse across a resistor DA fixed point in an electromagnetic wave T4AH-5.3 RA QAt what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free Qspace? AApproximately 300 million meters per second BApproximately 468 million meters per second CApproximately 186,300 feet per second DApproximately 300 million miles per second T4AH-5.4 RB QWhat are the two interrelated fields considered to make Qup an electromagnetic wave? AAn electric field and a current field BAn electric field and a magnetic field CAn electric field and a voltage field DA voltage field and a current field T4AH-5.5 RC QWhy do electromagnetic waves not penetrate a good Qconductor to any great extent? AThe electromagnetic field induces currents in the insulator BThe oxide on the conductor surface acts as a shield CBecause of Eddy currents DThe resistivity of the conductor dissipates the field T4AH-6.1 RD QWhat is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves Qtraveling in free space? AThe electric and magnetic fields eventually become aligned BPropagation in a medium with a high refractive index CThe electromagnetic wave encounters the ionosphere and Creturns to its source DPropagation of energy across a vacuum by changing electric Dand magnetic fields T4AH-6.2 RA QWhat is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as Q++++horizontally polarized++++? AThe electric field is parallel to the earth BThe magnetic field is parallel to the earth CBoth the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal DBoth the electric and magnetic fields are vertical T4AH-6.3 RB QWhat is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as Qhaving ++++circular polarization++++? AThe electric field is bent into a circular shape BThe electric field rotates CThe electromagnetic wave continues to circle the earth DThe electromagnetic wave has been generated by a quad Dantenna T4AH-6.4 RC QWhen the electric field is perpendicular to the surface Qof the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic Qwave? ACircular BHorizontal CVertical DElliptical T4AH-6.5 RD QWhen the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the Qearth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? ACircular BHorizontal CElliptical DVertical T4AH-6.6 RA QWhen the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface Qof the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic Qfield? AHorizontal BCircular CElliptical DVertical T4AH-6.7 RB QWhen the electric field is parallel to the surface of the Qearth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? AVertical BHorizontal CCircular DElliptical T4AH-7.1 RB QWhat is a ++++sine wave++++? AA constant-voltage, varying-current wave BA wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be Brepresented by a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed CA wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent Cfunction DA wave whose polarity changes in a random manner T4AH-7.2 RC QHow many times does a sine wave cross the zero axis in Qone complete cycle? A180 times B4 times C2 times D360 times T4AH-7.3 RD QHow many degrees are there in one complete sine wave Qcycle? A90 degrees B270 degrees C180 degrees D360 degrees T4AH-7.4 RA QWhat is the ++++period++++ of a wave? AThe time required to complete one cycle BThe number of degrees in one cycle CThe number of zero crossings in one cycle DThe amplitude of the wave T4AH-7.5 RB QWhat is a ++++square++++ wave? AA wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle BA wave which abruptly changes back and forth between two Bvoltage levels and which remains an equal time at each level CA wave that makes four zero crossings per cycle DA wave in which the positive and negative excursions occupy Dunequal portions of the cycle time T4AH-7.6 RC QWhat is a wave called which abruptly changes back and Qforth between two voltage levels and which remains an equal time Qat each level? AA sine wave BA cosine wave CA square wave DA rectangular wave T4AH-7.7 RD QWhich sine waves make up a square wave? A0.707 times the fundamental frequency BThe fundamental frequency and all odd and even harmonics CThe fundamental frequency and all even harmonics DThe fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics T4AH-7.8 RA QWhat type of wave is made up of sine waves of the Qfundamental frequency and all the odd harmonics? ASquare wave BSine wave CCosine wave DTangent wave T4AH-7.9 RB QWhat is a ++++sawtooth++++ wave? AA wave that alternates between two values and spends an Aequal time at each level BA wave with a straight line rise time faster than the fall Btime (or vice versa) CA wave that produces a phase angle tangent to the unit Ccircle DA wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be Drepresented by a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed T4AH-7.10 RC QWhat type of wave is characterized by a rise time Qsignificantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)? AA cosine wave BA square wave CA sawtooth wave DA sine wave T4AH-7.11 RD QWhich sine waves make up a sawtooth wave? AThe fundamental frequency and all prime harmonics BThe fundamental frequency and all even harmonics CThe fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics DThe fundamental frequency and all harmonics T4AH-7.12 RA QWhat type of wave is made up of sine waves at the Qfundamental frequency and all the harmonics? AA sawtooth wave BA square wave CA sine wave DA cosine wave T4AH-8.1 RC QWhat is the meaning of the term ++++root mean square++++ value of Qan AC voltage? AThe value of an AC voltage found by squaring the average Avalue of the peak AC voltage BThe value of a DC voltage that would cause the same heating Beffect in a given resistor as a peak AC voltage CThe value of an AC voltage that would cause the same Cheating effect in a given resistor as a DC voltage of the same Cvalue DThe value of an AC voltage found by taking the square root Dof the average AC value T4AH-8.2 RC QWhat is the term used in reference to a DC voltage that Qwould cause the same heating in a resistor as a certain value of QAC voltage? ACosine voltage BPower factor CRoot mean square DAverage voltage T4AH-8.3 RD QWhat would be the most accurate way of determining the Qrms voltage of a complex waveform? ABy using a grid dip meter BBy measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter CBy using an absorption wavemeter DBy measuring the heating effect in a known resistor T4AH-8.4 RA QWhat is the rms voltage at a common household electrical Qpower outlet? A117-V AC B331-V AC C82.7-V AC D165.5-V AC T4AH-8.5 RB QWhat is the peak voltage at a common household electrical Qoutlet? A234 volts B165.5 volts C117 volts D331 volts T4AH-8.6 RC QWhat is the peak-to-peak voltage at a common household Qelectrical outlet? A234 volts B117 volts C331 volts D165.5 volts T4AH-8.7 RD QWhat is the rms voltage of a 165-volt peak pure sine Qwave? A233-V AC B330-V AC C58.3-V AC D117-V AC T4AH-8.8 RA QWhat is the rms value of a 331-volt peak-to-peak pure Qsine wave? A117-V AC B165-V AC C234-V AC D300-V AC T4AH-9.1 RC QFor many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP to Qaverage power during a modulation peak in a single-sideband phone Qsignal? AApproximately 1.0 to 1 BApproximately 25 to 1 CApproximately 2.5 to 1 DApproximately 100 to 1 T4AH-9.2 RC QIn a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the QPEP-to-average power ratio? AThe frequency of the modulating signal BThe degree of carrier suppression CThe speech characteristics DThe amplifier power T4AH-9.3 RC QWhat is the approximate DC input power to a Class B RF Qpower amplifier stage in an FM-phone transmitter when the PEP Qoutput power is 1500 watts? AApproximately 900 watts BApproximately 1765 watts CApproximately 2500 watts DApproximately 3000 watts T4AH-9.4 RB QWhat is the approximate DC input power to a Class C RF Qpower amplifier stage in a RTTY transmitter when the PEP output Qpower is 1000 watts? AApproximately 850 watts BApproximately 1250 watts CApproximately 1667 watts DApproximately 2000 watts T4AH-9.5 RD QWhat is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF Qpower amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when Qthe PEP output power is 500 watts? AApproximately 250 watts BApproximately 600 watts CApproximately 800 watts DApproximately 1000 watts T4AH-10.1 RD QWhere is the noise generated which primarily determines Qthe signal-to-noise ratio in a 160-meter wavelength band Qreceiver? AIn the detector BMan-made noise CIn the receiver front end DIn the atmosphere T4AH-10.2 RA QWhere is the noise generated which primarily determines Qthe signal-to-noise ratio in a 2-meter wavelength band receiver? AIn the receiver front end BMan-made noise CIn the atmosphere DIn the ionosphere T4AH-10.3 RB QWhere is the noise generated which primarily determines Qthe signal-to-noise ratio in a 1.25-meter wavelength band Qreceiver? AIn the audio amplifier BIn the receiver front end CIn the ionosphere DMan-made noise T4AH-10.4 RC QWhere is the noise generated which primarily determines Qthe signal-to-noise ratio in a 0.70-meter wavelength band Qreceiver? AIn the atmosphere BIn the ionosphere CIn the receiver front end DMan-made noise N5 T4AI-1.1 RA QWhat is meant by the term ++++antenna gain++++? AThe numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength Aof an antenna to that of another antenna BThe ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the Bsignal in the back direction CThe ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna Ccompared to the output power of the transmitter DThe final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses D(including any phasing lines present) T4AI-1.2 RB QWhat is the term for a numerical ratio which relates the Qperformance of one antenna to that of another real or theoretical Qantenna? AEffective radiated power BAntenna gain CConversion gain DPeak effective power T4AI-1.3 RB QWhat is meant by the term ++++antenna bandwidth++++? AAntenna length divided by the number of elements BThe frequency range over which an antenna can be expected Bto perform well CThe angle between the half-power radiation points DThe angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through Dthe ends of the elements T4AI-1.4 RA QHow can the approximate beamwidth of a rotatable beam Qantenna be determined? ANote the two points where the signal strength of the Aantenna is down 3 dB from the maximum signal point and compute Athe angular difference BMeasure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated Bpower lobes from the front and rear of the antenna CDraw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements Cand measure the angle between the lines DMeasure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated Dpower lobes from the front and side of the antenna T4AI-2.1 RC QWhat is a ++++trap antenna++++? AAn antenna for rejecting interfering signals BA highly sensitive antenna with maximum gain in all Bdirections CAn antenna capable of being used on more than one band Cbecause of the presence of parallel LC networks DAn antenna with a large capture area T4AI-2.2 RD QWhat is an advantage of using a trap antenna? AIt has high directivity in the high-frequency amateur bands BIt has high gain CIt minimizes harmonic radiation DIt may be used for multiband operation T4AI-2.3 RA QWhat is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna? AIt will radiate harmonics BIt can only be used for single band operation CIt is too sharply directional at the lower amateur Cfrequencies DIt must be neutralized T4AI-2.4 RB QWhat is the principle of a trap antenna? ABeamwidth may be controlled by non-linear impedances BThe traps form a high impedance to isolate parts of the Bantenna CThe effective radiated power can be increased if the space Caround the antenna "sees" a high impedance DThe traps increase the antenna gain T4AI-3.1 RC QWhat is a parasitic element of an antenna? AAn element polarized 90 degrees opposite the driven element BAn element dependent on the antenna structure for support CAn element that receives its excitation from mutual Ccoupling rather than from a transmission line DA transmission line that radiates radio-frequency energy T4AI-3.2 RD QHow does a parasitic element generate an electromagnetic Qfield? ABy the RF current received from a connected transmission Aline BBy interacting with the earth's magnetic field CBy altering the phase of the current on the driven element DBy currents induced into the element from a surrounding Delectric field T4AI-3.3 RA QHow does the length of the reflector element of a Qparasitic element beam antenna compare with that of the driven Qelement? AIt is about 5% longer BIt is about 5% shorter CIt is twice as long DIt is one-half as long T4AI-3.4 RB QHow does the length of the director element of a Qparasitic element beam antenna compare with that of the driven Qelement? AIt is about 5% longer BIt is about 5% shorter CIt is one-half as long DIt is twice as long T4AI-4.1 RC QWhat is meant by the term ++++radiation resistance++++ for an Qantenna? ALosses in the antenna elements and feed line BThe specific impedance of the antenna CAn equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same Camount of power as that radiated from an antenna DThe resistance in the trap coils to received signals T4AI-4.2 RD QWhat is the term used for an equivalent resistance which Qwould dissipate the same amount of energy as that radiated from Qan antenna? ASpace resistance BLoss resistance CTransmission line loss DRadiation resistance T4AI-4.3 RA QWhy is the value of the radiation resistance of an Qantenna important? AKnowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match Aimpedances for maximum power transfer BKnowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to Bmeasure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting Bantenna CThe value of the radiation resistance represents the front- Cto-side ratio of the antenna DThe value of the radiation resistance represents the front- Dto-back ratio of the antenna T4AI-4.4 RB QWhat are the factors that determine the radiation Qresistance of an antenna? ATransmission line length and height of antenna BThe location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects Band the length/diameter ratio of the conductors CIt is a constant for all antennas since it is a physical Cconstant DSunspot activity and the time of day T4AI-5.1 RC QWhat is a ++++driven element++++ of an antenna? AAlways the rearmost element BAlways the forwardmost element CThe element fed by the transmission line DThe element connected to the rotator T4AI-5.2 RB QWhat is the usual electrical length of a driven element Qin an HF beam antenna? A1/4 wavelength B1/2 wavelength C3/4 wavelength D1 wavelength T4AI-5.3 RA QWhat is the term for an antenna element which is supplied Qpower from a transmitter through a transmission line? ADriven element BDirector element CReflector element DParasitic element T4AI-6.1 RB QWhat is meant by the term ++++antenna efficiency++++? AEfficiency = (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) X 100% BEfficiency = (radiation resistance / total resistance) X 100% CEfficiency = (total resistance / radiation resistance) X 100% DEfficiency = (effective radiated power / transmitter output) X 100% T4AI-6.2 RC QWhat is the term for the ratio of the radiation Qresistance of an antenna to the total resistance of the system? AEffective radiated power BRadiation conversion loss CAntenna efficiency DBeamwidth T4AI-6.3 RD QWhat is included in the total resistance of an antenna Qsystem? ARadiation resistance plus space impedance BRadiation resistance plus transmission resistance CTransmission line resistance plus radiation resistance DRadiation resistance plus ohmic resistance T4AI-6.4 RA QHow can the antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical Qantenna be made comparable to that of a half-wave antenna? ABy installing a good ground radial system BBy isolating the coax shield from ground CBy shortening the vertical DBy lengthening the vertical T4AI-6.5 RB QWhy does a half-wave antenna operate at very high Qefficiency? ABecause it is non-resonant BBecause the conductor resistance is low compared to the Bradiation resistance CBecause earth-induced currents add to its radiated power DBecause it has less corona from the element ends than other Dtypes of antennas T4AI-7.1 RC QWhat is a ++++folded dipole++++ antenna? AA dipole that is one-quarter wavelength long BA ground plane antenna CA dipole whose ends are connected by another one-half Cwavelength piece of wire DA fictional antenna used in theoretical discussions to Dreplace the radiation resistance T4AI-7.2 RD QHow does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare Qwith that of a simple dipole antenna? AIt is 0.707 times the simple dipole bandwidth BIt is essentially the same CIt is less than 50% that of a simple dipole DIt is greater T4AI-7.3 RA QWhat is the input terminal impedance at the center of a Qfolded dipole antenna? A300 ohms B72 ohms C50 ohms D450 ohms T4AI-8.1 RD QWhat is the meaning of the term ++++velocity factor++++ of a Qtransmission line? AThe ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to Athe terminating impedance BThe index of shielding for coaxial cable CThe velocity of the wave on the transmission line Cmultiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum DThe velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided Dby the velocity of light in a vacuum T4AI-8.2 RA QWhat is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at Qwhich a signal travels through a line to the speed of light in a Qvacuum? AVelocity factor BCharacteristic impedance CSurge impedance DStanding wave ratio T4AI-8.3 RB QWhat is the velocity factor for a typical coaxial cable? A2.70 B0.66 C0.30 D0.10 T4AI-8.4 RC QWhat determines the velocity factor in a transmission Qline? AThe termination impedance BThe line length CDielectrics in the line DThe center conductor resistivity T4AI-8.5 RB QWhy is the physical length of a coaxial cable Qtransmission line shorter than its electrical length? ASkin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable BRF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable CThe surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line DThe characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed Dline T4AI-9.1 RB QWhat would be the physical length of a typical coaxial Qtransmission line which is electrically one-quarter wavelength Qlong at 14.1 MHz? A20 meters B3.51 meters C2.33 meters D0.25 meters T4AI-9.2 RB QWhat would be the physical length of a typical coaxial Qtransmission line which is electrically one-quarter wavelength Qlong at 7.2 MHz? A10.5 meters B6.88 meters C24 meters D50 meters T4AI-9.3 RC QWhat is the physical length of a parallel antenna Qfeedline which is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 QMHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.82.) A15 meters B24.3 meters C8.7 meters D70.8 meters T4AI-9.4 RA QWhat is the physical length of a twin lead transmission Qfeedline at 3.65 MHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.80.) AElectrical length times 0.8 BElectrical length divided by 0.8 C80 meters D160 meters T4AI-10.1 RA QIn a half-wave antenna, where are the current nodes? AAt the ends BAt the center CThree-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the Cend DOne-half of the way from the feed point toward the end T4AI-10.2 RB QIn a half-wave antenna, where are the voltage nodes? AAt the ends BAt the feed point CThree-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the Cend DOne-half of the way from the feed point toward the end T4AI-10.3 RC QAt the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of Qcurrent and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the Qantenna? AEqual voltage and current BMinimum voltage and maximum current CMaximum voltage and minimum current DMinimum voltage and minimum current T4AI-10.4 RD QAt the center of a half-wave antenna, what values of Qvoltage and current exist compared to the remainder of the Qantenna? AEqual voltage and current BMaximum voltage and minimum current CMinimum voltage and minimum current DMinimum voltage and maximum current T4AI-11.1 RA QWhy is the inductance required for a base loaded HF Qmobile antenna less than that for an inductance placed further up Qthe whip? AThe capacitance to ground is less farther away from the Abase BThe capacitance to ground is greater farther away from the Bbase CThe current is greater at the top DThe voltage is less at the top T4AI-11.2 RB QWhat happens to the base feed point of a fixed length HF Qmobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered? AThe resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance Adecreases BThe resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance Bincreases CThe resistance increases and the capacitive reactance Cdecreases DThe resistance increases and the capacitive reactance Dincreases T4AI-11.3 RC QWhy should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high Qratio of reactance to resistance? ATo swamp out harmonics BTo maximize losses CTo minimize losses DTo minimize the Q T4AI-11.4 RD QWhy is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile Qantenna? ATo improve reception BTo lower the losses CTo lower the Q DTo tune out the capacitive reactance T4AI-12.1 RA QFor a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading Qcoil be placed to minimize losses and produce the most effective Qperformance? ANear the center of the vertical radiator BAs low as possible on the vertical radiator CAs close to the transmitter as possible DAt a voltage node T4AI-12.2 RB QWhat happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is Qshortened through the use of loading coils? AIt is increased BIt is decreased CNo change occurs DIt becomes flat T4AI-12.3 RC QWhy are self-resonant antennas popular in amateur Qstations? AThey are very broad banded BThey have high gain in all azimuthal directions CThey are the most efficient radiators DThey require no calculations